Cracking the Reliance Foundation Scholarship Aptitude Test Preparation : 100 Most Important Questions

Reliance Foundation, a prominent organization committed to societal development, offers various opportunities for individuals through its aptitude tests. These tests are designed to evaluate the analytical and problem-solving skills of candidates, ensuring that the selected individuals align with the foundation's vision. If you're gearing up for the Reliance Foundation Scholarship Aptitude Test, this blog post aims to provide you with a comprehensive guide to help you prepare effectively.

1. Understanding the Test Structure:

Before diving into preparation, it's crucial to understand the test structure. The Reliance Foundation Aptitude Test typically assesses quantitative aptitude, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. Familiarizing yourself with the exam pattern will give you a clear roadmap for your preparation.

2. Gathering Study Materials:

Gather relevant study materials to cover the syllabus comprehensively. Utilize textbooks, online resources, and previous years' question papers to understand the types of questions asked. Focus on building a strong foundation in mathematical concepts, logical reasoning, and English language skills.

3. Create a Study Plan:

Organize your study schedule by creating a realistic and structured plan. Allocate dedicated time to each section based on your strengths and weaknesses. Consistency is key, so ensure that you follow your plan diligently to cover all topics before the exam.

4. Practice Regularly:

Practice is essential for success in any aptitude test. Solve a variety of sample questions and mock tests to improve your speed and accuracy. Identify your weak areas and revisit those topics for additional practice. This not only boosts your confidence but also helps in time management during the actual test.

5. Time Management Techniques:

The Reliance Foundation Aptitude Test is time-bound, so mastering time management is crucial. Practice solving questions within the allotted time to enhance your efficiency. Learn to prioritize questions based on difficulty levels, ensuring that you maximize your score within the time constraints.

6. Stay Updated with Current Affairs:

In addition to aptitude skills, stay informed about current affairs. The foundation may include questions related to general knowledge and current events. Regularly read newspapers, magazines, and online news portals to stay updated.

7. Seek Guidance:

If possible, seek guidance from individuals who have successfully cleared the Reliance Foundation Aptitude Test. They can provide valuable insights into the exam pattern, share their experiences, and offer tips on effective preparation

8. Revision and Mock Tests:

In the final weeks leading up to the exam, focus on revision and take multiple mock tests. This simulates the actual test environment, helping you manage stress and improve your performance. Analyze your mistakes in mock tests to fine-tune your preparation strategy.

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Reliance Foundation Scholarship Aptitude Test Questions:

Q.1 Fill in the blank with correct prefix or suffic

During the logue, all the main actors of the play were mentioned

a) Intro

b) Pro

c) Pre

d) Post

Q.2 Identify the meaning of the idiom:

Get a taste of your own medicine

a)        You cannot tell the taste of your own medicine

b)       Getting a taste of medicine is difficult for you

c)        Receive the same treatment that you give   others

d)       Only you know what the taste of medicine is

 

Q.3 Fill in the blanks with the correct option:

 __________Were happy that their pet dog was saved.

a)     I

b)    Me

c)     They

d)    Them


Q.4 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: The police had full__________ The situation.

a)     Control over

b)    Control off

c)     Control in

d)    Control with

 

Q.5 Change the voice of the following sentence: Manish did not give up play even though he was running a fever.

a)     Manish did not give up play even as he was running a fever.

b)    Even though he was running a fever, play was not given up by Manish.

c)     Play was not giving up Manish even though he was running a fever.

d)    Play was not being given up by Manish even though he was running a fever.

 

Q.6 Select one of the following four options that will make the second pair analogous to the first pair given as: Soldiers: Army :: Nomads:________

a)     Horde

b)    Heap

c)     Herd

d)    Bundle

 

Q.7 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: Where did Sarah go out _______ minutes ago?

a)     Few

b)    A few

c)     Little

d)    A little

 

Q.8 Identify the correct words to fill in the blanks. On that  _______ day, Sunil made the ________ decision to divorce his wife.

a)     Fatal, fatal

b)    Fateful, fatal

c)     fateful, fateful

d)    Fatal, fateful


 

Q.9 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verb: Their efforts ________ painful to watch.

a)     Were

b)    Was

c)     Is

d)    Has been


Q.10 Choose the option which will CORRECTLY fill the blank.

Rumors like this cannot be taken _______ their face value.

a)     At

b)    In

c)     By

d)    With

 

Q.11 In which of the following sentences is the given sentence correctly written?

She’s quite beautiful.

A.    She’s all but beautiful.

B.     She’s anything but beautiful.

C.     She’s nothing but beautiful.

D.    She’s absolutely beautiful.


a)     A and d

b)     B and C

c)      All the above

d)     No of the above


Q.12 Fill in the blanks with the correct option:

_________Argument sprang up between the two friends.

a)     The

b)    An

c)     A

d)    No article required

Q.13 Fill in the blank/s with the correct form of the verb given in brackets:

Sometime back. I came to know what she _________ (mean).

a)     Means

b)    Was meaning

c)     Meant

d)    Had meant

 

Q.14 Transform the following sentence into an Exclamatory sentence. It is a wonderful party.

a)     No other party can be more wonderful than this party.

b)    What a wonderful party it is!

c)     Isn’t it a wonderful party!

d)    There cannot be a more wonderful party.



Q.15 Fill in the blank with the correct option.

The road was too _________ for big cars to pass by.

a)     Close

b)    Long

c)     Wide

d)    Narrow



Q.16 Select the right sequence of the jumbled sentence:

a. Finally, it drank the water and flew away.

b. There was a thirsty crow.

c. The crow was clever enough to bring pebbles one by one and put into it.

d. It decided to drink water from a pitcher which had very little water.


a)     cadb

b)    abcd



Q.17 Choose the correct sentence in Passive Voice: The committee took a decision.

a)     A decision was taken by the committee.

b)    The committee have taken a decision.

c)     A decision took the committee.

d)    The committee was taken by the decision.


Q.18 Identify the meaning of the underlined word:

There was a cluster of fans around him asking for autographs.

a)     Group

b)    Clutch

c)     Bush

d)    Club



Q.19 Fill in the blank with the adjective form of ‘advice’.

It is _______ to keep away from Foster if you wish to avoid legal tangles.

a)     Advisable

b)    Adviced

c)     Advised

d)    Advicable


Q.20 Complete the proverb correctly.

Call it a day

a)     Start working on something

b)    Stop working on something

c)     Start working on everything



Q.21 In a certain code, if EXAMINATION is written as FZDQNTHBRYY, then how will ADMISSION be written in that code?

a)     BFPMXYPVW

b)    BFPMXYPWW

c)     BFPLXYPXV

d)    BFMPXYPVV


 

Q.22 Select the alternative that will replace the question mark in the analogy

456: 654 987:?.

a)     986

b)    786

c)     789

d)    700



Q.23 Find the odd one out.

a)     VXT

b)    JHL

c)     EGC

d)    SUQ



Q.24 Find the next term in the sequence: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8,

a)     10

b)    12

c)     13

d)    16



Q.25 If Sam means Ben, Ben means Jam, Jam means Ren, then what will you eat with Bread?

a)     Sam

b)    Jam

c)     Ren

d)    Ben

 

Q.27 Find the odd one out in the given series 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

a)     50

b)    37

c)     56

d)    64

Q.28 The missing term in the series 2, 128, 5, 64, 8,__ 11, 16, 14, 8 is

a)     32

b)    31

c)     43

d)    54

Q.29 Ravi started to gym from his home. He walked 60 m south east, took a sharp right and walked 80 m, turned towards starting point and walked 50 m to reach gym. How far is his gym straight away from his home?

a)     50 m

b)    75 m

c)     100 m

d)    125 m

Q.30 In the following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Select the word which is different from the others.

a)     Coat

b)    Shirt

c)     Trousers

d)    Sweater


Q.31 Alex ran away from Brian towards East for 40 km. Later on he turned right and moved for 40 km. In which direction should Brian move directly to meet Alex?

a)     North-east

b)    North-west

c)     South-east

d)    South-west

 

Q.32 The third number is obtained by using the first two numbers using a certain logic. What will the 6th number that can be obtained using 4th and 5th numbers by using the same logic?

32:33:1056: 37:38:?

a)     1406

b)    1501

c)     1603

d)    1709

Q.33 In a certain code language, PAL is written as 11115, then how will SAN be written in that code language?

a)     8113

b)    82613

c)     72613

d)    81126

 

Q.34 Point U is at 16 m north to point V. Point V is at 20 m west to point W. Point W is at 22 m north to point X. Point Z is at 8 m north to point Y which is at 12 m west to point X. Point K is at 10 m North to point W. Point N is at 4 km south to point X. The sum of the lengths XY, XW, WK and YZ is

a)     56 m

b)    50 m

c)     54 m

d)    52 m

 

Q.37 In a certain code, RAIL is written as KCTN and SPEAK is written as CGRUM. How will AVOID be written in that code?

a)     FKQXC

b)    KQXCF

c)     KRXCF

d)    KQVCB

 

Q.38 Choose the pair that represents a similar relationship to the given quartet of numbers:-

5:25:125:625

a)     7:49:343:2401

b)    2:4:8:15

c)     3:10:27:82

d)    8:64:226:1024

 

Q.39 Which of the following means my mother’s or father’s sister?

a)     Niece

b)    Aunt

c)     Step-sister

d)    Granddaughter

 

Q.40 An insect moves 10 cm to the south of its nest. It takes a left turn and moves for another 10 cm. The insect is in which direction with respect to its nest?

a)     South-East

b)    East

c)     West

d)    South-West 

 

Q.41 If (n+2)!=210(n-1)! Then what is the value of n ?

a)     6

b)    5

c)     7

d)    4

Q.42 Solve the equation: (x + 1)(2x + 1) = (x + 3)(2x + 3) – 14, x =

a)     3

b)    5

c)     1

d)    2

Q.43 In a right angled triangle, the difference of two angles on the two ends of hypotenuse is 8 degrees. Which of these would be the measure of one of the angles of this triangle?

a)     36 degrees

b)    42 degrees

c)     49 degrees

d)    50 degrees

Q.44 Samar spends 52% of his monthly salary on household expenditure and 23% on miscellaneous expenditure. If he is left with ₹ 4,500 after al these expenses, then what is his monthly salary?

a)     16,000

b)    17,000

c)     17,500

d)    18,000


Q.45 At a certain printing plant, each of ‘m’ machines prints 6 newspapers every ‘s’ second. If all machines work together but independently without interruption how many minutes will it take to print an entire run of 18,000 newspapers?

a)     180s/m

b)    5s/6m

c)     50sm

d)    Ms/50

 

Q.46 If 6 men get 2,100 in 15 days as wages, how much would be given to 12 men for 24 days as wages?

a)     4,260

b)    5,490

c)     6,720

d)    7,470

Q.47 If the class teacher wants the leader and assistant leader to be of different gender, then in how many ways can a leader and an assistant leader be selected from a class of 30 students, in which 10 students are girls?

a)     30

b)    60

c)     200

d)    400

 

Q.48 Total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 180 m cm². If the height of the cylinder is 27 cm, what is the radius of its base?

a)     3 cm

b)    4 cm

c)     6 cm

d)    9 cm



Q.49 The average of first 100 consecutive odd numbers is

a)     49

b)    50

c)     75

d)    100


 

Q.50 What is the unit digit in the result of the product 23 x 46 x 38 x 57?

a)     6

b)    4

c)     8

d)    2

Q.51 Which of the following numbers can be represented as non-terminating and repeating decimals?

a)     39/24

b)    3/16

c)     3/11

d)    137/25

Q.52 There were only two candidates A and B in an election. A defeated B by 5490 votes and 65% of the voters supported A. Find the total number of votes Polled?

a)     18300

b)    16300

c)     14500

d)    12400


Q.53 A train of length 220 metres, takes 20 seconds to cross a platform of length 280 metres. What is the speed of the train?

a)     90 km/hr

b)    50.4 km/hr

c)     48 km/hr

d)    39.6 km/hr


Q.54 The average weight of 25 kids is 24 kg. If the weight of a man is included, then the average rises by 2 kg. The weight of the man is

a)     50 kg

b)    75 kg

c)     76 kg

d)    84 kg

 

Q.55 If a snail crawls at a constant speed and covers 100 meters in 5 minutes then the distance covered in 8 minutes will be

a)     140 meters

b)    160 meters

c)     180 meters

d)    200 meters

Q.56 The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers denoted by a, b, c, d and e is

a)     A

b)    B

c)     C

d)    D


Q.57 The perimeter of a rectangle is 39 cm. If the ratio of the lengths of the two adjacent sides is 5:8, what are the lengths of these sides?

a)     15 cm and 24 cm

b)    6.5 cm and 12 cm

c)     7.5 cm and 12 cm

d)    7 cm and 12.5 cm


Q.58 The sum of 9 numbers is 72. Of these, the average of the first five is 8 and that of last five is 9. What is the value of the fifth number?

a)     10

b)    8

c)     12

d)    13

 

Q.59 Which of the following is the volume of the sphere of radius r?

a)     0

b)    3πr

c)     (1/4) πr^3

d)    (4/3π)r^3

 

Q.60 If 34,569 is multiplied by 227, what will be the last two digits?

a)     43

b)    63

c)     53

d)    13


Q.61 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: ___________ were playing in the garden when it suddenly started raining.


a) They


b) Them


c) Their


d) There


Q.62 Choose the correct sentence in Passive Voice: The chef prepared a delicious meal.


a) A delicious meal was prepared by the chef.


b) The delicious meal was prepared by the chef.


c) The chef has prepared a delicious meal.


d) A delicious meal has been prepared by the chef.


Q.63 Identify the correct words to fill in the blanks: The detective found a ____________ of clues at the crime scene.


a) Bunch


b) Group


c) Bundle


d) Pack


Q.64 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: The sun __________ early in the morning.


a) Rises


b) Raise


c) Raised


d) Rising


Q.65 Change the voice of the following sentence: The teacher praised the students for their hard work.


a) The students were praised by the teacher for their hard work.


b) The hard work of the students was praised by the teacher.


c) Praise was given by the teacher to the students for their hard work.


d) The teacher was praised by the students for their hard work.


Q.66 Complete the proverb correctly: Every cloud has a __________.


a) Silver lining


b) Golden opportunity


c) Dark side


d) Bright future


Q.67 Find the next term in the sequence: 2, 6, 12, 20, __


a) 24


b) 28


c) 30


d) 36



Q.68 In a certain code language, if BOOK is written as 251115, then how will PEN be written in that code?


a) 165


b) 167


c) 1514


d) 1515


Q.69 The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 45. What are the numbers?


a) 13, 15, 17


b) 11, 13, 15


c) 9, 11, 13


d) 15, 17, 19


Q.70 If 3x - 5 = 16, what is the value of x?


a) 7


b) 9


c) 8


d) 6


Q.71 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: The children __________ playing in the park when it started raining.


a) Is


b) Am


c) Were


d) Be



Q.72 Identify the correct words to fill in the blanks: The explorer found an interesting __________ of artifacts in the ancient cave.


a) Collection


b) Set


c) Gathering


d) Package


Q.73 Choose the correct sentence in Passive Voice: The gardener plants beautiful flowers every spring.


a) Beautiful flowers are planted by the gardener every spring.


b) The beautiful flowers are planted every spring by the gardener.


c) The gardener is planting beautiful flowers every spring.


d) Every spring beautiful flowers are planted by the gardener.


Q.74 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: The cat __________ quietly on the windowsill.


a) Sits


b) Sat


c) Sitting


d) Sitted


Q.75 Change the voice of the following sentence: They built a magnificent castle on the hill.


a) A magnificent castle was built on the hill by them.


b) On the hill, they built a magnificent castle.


c) A magnificent castle is built by them on the hill.


d) Built on the hill was a magnificent castle by them.



Q.76 Complete the proverb correctly: Actions speak louder than __________.


a) Thoughts


b) Words


c) Whispers


d) Silence


Q.77 Find the next term in the sequence: 3, 9, 27, 81, __


a) 121


b) 243


c) 162


d) 100


Q.78 In a certain code language, if TABLE is written as 2012515, then how will CHAIR be written in that code?


a) 3819818


b) 3812519


c) 3819181


d) 3818191


Q.79 The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 40. What are the numbers?


a) 8, 10, 12, 14


b) 6, 8, 10, 12


c) 10, 12, 14, 16


d) 4, 6, 8, 10


Q.80 If 4y - 7 = 25, what is the value of y?


a) 8


b) 9


c) 6


d) 7



Q.81 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: The birds __________ singing in the trees at dawn.


a) Am


b) Were


c) Is


d) Be



Q.82 Identify the correct words to fill in the blanks: The magician pulled a rabbit out of his __________.


a) Hat


b) Sleeve


c) Pocket


d) Shoe


Q.83 Choose the correct sentence in Passive Voice: The chef cooks delicious meals every day.


a) Delicious meals are cooked by the chef every day.


b) Cooked every day are delicious meals by the chef.


c) Every day delicious meals are cooked by the chef.


d) The delicious meals are cooking every day by the chef.


Q.84 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: The baby __________ peacefully in the crib.


a) Sleep


b) Sleeping


c) Sleeps


d) Slept


Q.85 Change the voice of the following sentence: They have finished the project ahead of schedule.


a) The project ahead of schedule has been finished by them.


b) The project has been finished by them ahead of schedule.


c) Finished ahead of schedule is the project by them.


d) The project was finished by them ahead of schedule.


Q.86 Complete the proverb correctly: All that glitters is not __________.


a) Gold


b) Silver


c) Diamond


d) Platinum


Q.87 Find the next term in the sequence: 5, 10, 20, 40, __


a) 80


b) 60


c) 100


d) 120


Q.88 In a certain code language, if PENCIL is written as 161514913, then how will ERASER be written in that code?


a) 5181195


b) 51419518


c) 51418519


d) 51419815


Q.89 The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 75. What are the numbers?


a) 11, 13, 15, 17, 19


b) 9, 11, 13, 15, 17


c) 13, 15, 17, 19, 21


d) 7, 9, 11, 13, 15



Q.90 If 2x - 3 = 15, what is the value of x?


a) 8


b) 9


c) 7


d) 6


Q.91 Complete the sentence with the correct option: His new invention was __________ success.


a) The


b) A


c) An


d) No article required


Q.92 Identify the synonym of the underlined word: The detective pursued the suspect through the narrow alley.


a) Pursued


b) Detective


c) Narrow


d) Suspect


Q.93 Fill in the blanks with the correct option: The car was too __________ to fit through the narrow gate.


a) Close


b) Long


c) Wide


d) Short


Q.94 Change the sentence to the future tense: She studies hard for her exams.


a) She will study hard for her exams.


b) She is studying hard for her exams.


c) She studied hard for her exams.


d) She has studied hard for her exams.


Q.95 Find the odd one out in the given series: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64


a) 36


b) 49


c) 64


d) 25


Q.96 What is the area of a rectangle with length 8 cm and width 5 cm?


a) 13 cm²


b) 40 cm²


c) 26 cm²


d) 15 cm²


Q.97 If TODAY is written as YADOT, how is TOMORROW written?


a) WOROMOT


b) MOROWOT


c) ORTOMOW


d) ROWOROTM


Q.98 A train travels 250 kilometers in 2.5 hours. What is its speed?


a) 100 km/h


b) 90 km/h


c) 110 km/h


d) 80 km/h


Q.99 What is the volume of a cube with a side length of 4 cm?


a) 16 cm³


b) 64 cm³


c) 32 cm³


d) 48 cm³


Q.100 If 3a + 5 = 20, what is the value of 'a'?


a) 5


b) 3


c) 6


d) 4


Conclusion:

Preparing for the Reliance Foundation Aptitude Test requires dedication, strategic planning, and consistent effort. By following this comprehensive guide, you can enhance your chances of success and embark on a journey towards contributing to the impactful initiatives of the Reliance Foundation. Good luck!

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